If you came in here looking for the answer to that question, I apologize, because I am the one asking it...
When Chael Sonnen had his 16.9:1 or whatever absurdly unnatural testosterone:epitestosterone ratio when he fought Anderson Silva at UFC 117, what would having a TUE for TRT prior to that fight have done? Would it have said "Alright, you're going to go in there and have absurdly high test levels but you've got a paper here that allows it so have at ye!"
That's the little piece of this I am missing. It is pretty obvious that your ratio of the T:E will be higher than someone who hasn't used TRT, but does that just mean that their ratio is unnatural but the actual serum testosterone levels will in "the normal range". I feel like I've misunderstood something because I feel like the guy on TRT will end up having more "free-range testosterone" (or whatever the correct scientific term is) but you are exempt from failing a test because you have the TUE to say you are allowed to undergo the TRT treatments.
So basically, will someone on TRT always test above the 4:1 or 6:1 range but they are exempt from being penalized for that because they have the TUE? Or are they supposed to come in within the normal range anyway?